I have a question for Universal Invisible Church supporters. It seems that a key Scripture used to support this theory is 1 Corinthians 12:13. As I read the letter, Paul is speaking to the members of the church at Corinth. He deals with them about the division in the church and speaks to this specifically again 11:18. He continues to correct them through instruction into chapter 12 and following. In chapter 12:1-12, Paul deals with the work of the Holy Spirit among them in the church. In 12:14 and following, he illustrates his instruction by comparing the members of this church to the members of a human body. It is evident that Paul is speaking to the members of this church at Corinth about their divisive actions. How is it then that 12:13 changes from the instruction of their actions in the church to a salvation act of the Holy Spirit? I do not see this as being the right understanding of this verse.
I also note that many of those that hold to the above mentioned theory reference this verse to Acts chapter 2. Those that reference this verse need to read Acts 1:5 and note that the baptism that took place was not initiated by the Holy Spirit. The Holy Spirit was the element, not the agent. They cannot have the Holy Spirit as the agent in 1 Corinthians 12:13 and as the element in Acts 2.
I look forward to comments. Thank you
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Excellent thoughts. Once again, basic hermeneutics give a clear answer. Given that the church is a called out assembly, the church is only universal in it’s beginning — when all believers were in Jerusalem — and in it’s end — when all believers are in the presence of the Lord; these being the only times when all believers are assembled.